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Not understanding the theory of this...

Question asked by whardy7 on Jan 28, 2010
Latest reply on Jan 29, 2010 by philmodjunk


Not understanding the theory of this...


I am not understanding something about why one way works and another doesn't concerning two tables.

I will simplify - I have 2 tables with fields; Household (HHID, Name) and FamilyMembers (FMID, HHID, gFMID, Name, Address), related by HHID. I also have a TO called FamilyMembers2.


My layout is based on Household and lets me enter households. It also contains a portal based on FamilyMembers that lets me enter family members (only Name) of that household. This all works great.

I need to click on a family member in the portal in order to edit the remaining FamilyMembers fields below it that contain the address fields, etc. I can do this as long as I populate a global variable gFMID in FamilyMembers with FMID using Set Field. It works great.

So, why doesn't it work if I simply relate FamilyMembers2 (TO of FamilyMembers) to FamilyMembers through FMID? It seems this would also keep FamilyMembers2 on the current record in FamilyMembers.

My end goal is the the simplest/cleanest way to click on a particular FamilyMember Name in the portal and edit it's remaining fields.


Thanks for any clarifications. I can't complain because it works great, but it would help me to understand why I can't do it with a simple relationship.